If someone were to play Blackjack at a table that had a promotion going that made Blackjacks pay 2-1 and suited blackjacks pay 3-1, how would that change the house advantage? I'm thinking it turns the advantage to the player during this time. 2 To 1 Blackjack Promotion, blue roulette tour tickets, poker flats field williamstown ma, constant buffer slot. Blackjack Promotions is the UK’s leading staffing solutions, travel retail and experiential specialist. Everything we do is committed to connecting consumers with brand experiences that are exciting, engaging and immersive, that ultimately provoke a real emotional response.

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The $150 bet doesn't allow you to get paid the full 3-1 on suited blackjacks. Aren't you shorting yourself a little. Play 2 hands at $100 each instead of 1 hand of $150+?

I also tend to think it is higher. The Wizard's page says 2-1 blackjack is an off-the-top 2.27% advantage. That's a given. Then in addition to that for every suited BJ you will get an extra payout of another bet. Rudeboyoi, I'm not saying your math is wrong, but just an additional .30% advantage for that seems low.

teddy, thats okay. i wasnt sure if my math was correct either. the wizards rules variations are relative to a given set of rules. i cant be sure about my math since these rules are different. i can just give educated guesses and can describe to you the process i take.So, I wanted to show a more transparent way of arriving to the answer that referring to a magical program, but got stumbled upon a mysterious mistake that I cannot figure out. Maybe, someone can look at this with a fresh eye and spot it?
So, I break the total expectation into two separate values - when you have blackjack, and when you don't:
E = p*e1 + (1-p)*e2
where p is the probability of having blackjack.
Now, we can say that e1 = (1-p)*S, where S is the payout rate (if the dealer does not have blackjack, you get S, otherwise you get 0). (this is assuming infinite decks, but the difference compared to 6 or 8 decks is really small, definitely, not worth the added complication).
From this, it is easy to tell how changes in blackjack payout affect the overall outcome:
E' = p*(1-p)*S' + (1-p)*e2 = E + p*(1-p)*(S'-S)
Basically, if the payout rate changes by D=S'-S, then the expectation changes by p(1-p)*D.
For example, if blackjack pays 2 to 1 as opposed to 3 to 2, that's a change of 0.5, so the change in expectation should be p(1-p)*0.5.
The p - probability of getting blackjack is 1/13*4/13 = 4/169, so the expected change in value is:
0.5*(4*165)/169^2
Now, this is where the mystery begins. The value above is about 1.16% - way lower than Wizard's 2.27%.
I would think that, perhaps, Wizard is mistaken (yeah, it can happen to even the best of us, and my respect of authority is almost non-existent compared to that of formulas), or that the figure in his table means something else ... but my own program I mentioned earlier (the one that just computes the expectation of each hand) gives the same answer as the Wizard's table to the seventh digit, even though it does not agree with Wizard on some other details (like the values of split hands). So, it seems pretty obvious that both Wizard and the program should be correct in this case, and my formula above must be wrong, but however I look at it, I just don't see the error.

It's as real as it gets. Bucky's Casino in Prescott, AZ. 8am-9am, 3pm-4pm and 9pm-10pm Mon-Thurs for players with a players card.

Sounds like Bucky knows what he is doing. Any sort of 'special' that is applicable to the 'Get 'em in early hours' and the 'Keep 'em there late hours' but only those narrow time periods is certainly going to be viewed by Bucky as being special. No way he is going to put up with all the hassles and complaints and disputes unless he thinks there is money involved in this. Is it a good a deal as might be thought? Beats me. Even with my shoes off, I couldn't solve the math puzzle but no casino would go thru the rigamarole unless it really meant something!Ok, I figured it out! The error was in my figure for blackjack probability. It should be 8/169, of course, not 4/169.
So, the expectation change due to a change D in blackjack payout is (8*161)*D/169^2.
With D=0.5 (blackjack pays 2 to 1), this is 2.255% - close enough to Wizard's number to let me write-off the difference on the combination of a rounding error and 6 deck vs. infinite decks deviations.

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Back to the original post, suited blackjacks is 1/4 of all blackjacks. So, if a suited blackjack pays 3 to 1 and the rest is 2 to one, then the average payout is 3*1/4 + 2+3/4 = 9/4. This is 3/4 more than the 1.5 to 1. So, D in my formula is 9/4, and the total change in the expected value is (8*161*9/4)/169^2 or about 3.38%. The house edge under the standard 1.5 payout and the rules, stated in the original post (H17, no surrender, up to 3 resplits) is about 0.7% (if you can double after split). Subtracting this from 3.38, we get that 2.68% number I mentioned in my first post.
Now it all makes sensse :)

Ok, we get that 2.68% number I mentioned.

Well, 2.68 percent Player Advantage is certainly attractive since ANY player advantage is rare. Assuming there is no slowdown in play and assuming that in order to be able to make use of this special one-hour of player advantage, one must already be seated at the blackjack table, I guess its really just what it pretends to be: a special promotion taking place at the stated times in order draw in an early crowd and keep them there late. If you were to do solely the early evening special hour and in order to make use of that needed to arrive at the blackjack pit at least one hour earlier, you would have two hours of play. Let us assume sixty hands at 0.7 percent house advantage and then sixty hands at 2.68 percent player advantage, I guess one just would consider it to be 120 hands at 2.61 player advantage. If so, for two hours of play, a drink or two, ... it would certainly seem worth it. After all, every other casino is at a house advantage.
If its such a good opportunity for the players, I wonder if Bucky will continue this promotion for long?

Let us assume sixty hands at 0.7 percent house advantage and then sixty hands at 2.68 percent player advantage, I guess one just would consider it to be 120 hands at 2.61 player advantage.

1.3% actually, but still not bad ...

Well, 2.68 percent Player Advantage is certainly attractive since ANY player advantage is rare. Assuming there is no slowdown in play and assuming that in order to be able to make use of this special one-hour of player advantage, one must already be seated at the blackjack table, I guess its really just what it pretends to be: a special promotion taking place at the stated times in order draw in an early crowd and keep them there late. If you were to do solely the early evening special hour and in order to make use of that needed to arrive at the blackjack pit at least one hour earlier, you would have two hours of play. Let us assume sixty hands at 0.7 percent house advantage and then sixty hands at 2.68 percent player advantage, I guess one just would consider it to be 120 hands at 2.61 player advantage. If so, for two hours of play, a drink or two, ... it would certainly seem worth it. After all, every other casino is at a house advantage.
If its such a good opportunity for the players, I wonder if Bucky will continue this promotion for long?

No special hooks to playing during the times. It's not one specific table only. It's on all tables for all players card members. You don't have to be seated when it starts. If it gets busy, another table is opened.
I think we've now determined a 2.68% house advantage. Now the question still remains... what is the optimal bet? $100, $150? Something in between?
Also, If I were playing, I would not play before and after. I would play the promotional sessions only and rest between.

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If someone were to play Blackjack at a table that had a promotion going that made Blackjacks pay 2-1 and suited blackjacks pay 3-1, how would that change the house advantage? I'm thinking it turns the advantage to the player during this time. The details are below.
6 deck shoe
dealer hits soft 17
double down on any first 2 cards
split up to 3 times (4 total hands)
no hitting split aces

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no surrender
player may play 2 hands if they are next to each other
maximum payout at the bonus odds is $300. So a $200+ suited blackjack would pay 3-1 on the first $100 and 3-2 on the remaining amount.
It seems to me it would be wise to play 2 hands at $100 each during this promotion to maximize changes to win if indeed the advantage is to the player during this time.
Any thoughts?Uh, is this real? If so, you'd better come out with it. I'm not going to say anything more unless you name the casino. That's the established procedure on this board; no secrets.It's as real as it gets. Bucky's Casino in Prescott, AZ. 8am-9am, 3pm-4pm and 9pm-10pm Mon-Thurs for players with a players card.

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I am getting +2.68% if you can double after split, and +2.54 if you cannot (with infinite decks)

I am getting +2.68% if you can double after split, and +2.54 if you cannot (with infinite decks)

out of curiosity can you explain how u came up with those numbers?I think the HA on your basic rules is about .65%. The odds of getting a non-suited blackjack are about 3.75%, and the odds of getting a suited blackjack are about 1.25%. If blackjack pushes are ignored, then paying 2:1 on non-suited blackjack is worth about 1.875% to the player (3.75% of the time, you'll get a extra .5 units). Paying 3:1 on suited blackjack is worth about 1.875% more for the player (1.25% of the time, you'll get an extra 1.5 units).
I'm writing this on my cellphone from O'hare airport, and doing the math in my head (and rounding). I may be missing something, but it looks to me like these rules have a player advantage of about 3.1%.Thank you.
I also tend to think it is higher. The Wizard's page says 2-1 blackjack is an off-the-top 2.27% advantage. That's a given. Then in addition to that for every suited BJ you will get an extra payout of another bet. Rudeboyoi, I'm not saying your math is wrong, but just an additional .30% advantage for that seems low.

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Regardless, it's a 2-3% advantage and the ideal bet is probably as many hands of $150 as they will let you lay out. That way you take advantage of the full $300 payout on regular BJs. Anything greater than that and you have diminishing returns. You'll stand to make ~$260 per hour for every bet you have out depending on the speed of play.

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Edit: $150 is the maximum you would ever care to bet. I can't say it's the optimal bet. I'm not sure what that is. It might be a number somewhere in between $100 and $150. If you just play $100, you're also shorting yourself by not getting the full $300 on the regular BJ's which come up a lot more often than the suiteds.

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out of curiosity can you explain how u came up with those numbers?

Well, nothing fancy really. I wrote a little program, that computes an expectation of every hand with a given set of rules, and then sums up all the hands multipled by the probabilities.
For this particular calculation I set the blackjack payout to 9/4 (3*1/4 + 2*3/4), and everything else according to the rules mentioned in the original post - H17, no surrender, 3 splits etc.

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